Given that, does that mean I am using my G Fund profits to by C,S, and I Fund shares at a lower cost; dependent upon what they close at? If the C,S, and I were to make money today, and I did the <1%, I would have bought more shares, at a higher price? Am I getting it???
No, your not getting it.
#1) Your not only using todays profit dollars in the (G), but your using alot
more of the (G) to stick in the risk funds. The (G) will gain 0.01% today.
You will be (most likely) taking more then that out of the (G) to drive the
risk funds back up to the percentages you desired.
#2) If the funds ended UP today, a 5%(C) fund might look like 5.32% come
tomorrow. If you did a <1% IFT today, you would drive the 5.32% back
down to 5% and the .32% would buy more shares into the (G). The 5%
of your money would then buy (C) shares at a higher price, but not as
many shares. So on a up day, I don't want to do a <1% IFT. I want to let
the 5.32% ride. More money working for my the next day. But again, the
next day could see a lose. So do your homework about tomorrows market
before making this decision the day before.
What happens if I do a <1%IFT on a UP day:
1) I have less money in the Fund then I would have
2) I have less shares in the Fund then I would have
What happens if I do a <1%IFT on a DOWN day:
1)I have more money in the Fund then I would have.
2)I have more shares in the Fund then I would have.