Phragmanic
First Allocation
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I curious about how my IFT is processed. Suppose that I have a balance like 50% G, 25% S and 25% I. If I request and IFT changing the allocation to 50% S and 50% I, how does that happen?
To complicate the matter, If the G fund earns a penny on the day that my transaction is effective, do I earn the penny on my G fund, then the dollars from G are reallocated to the S and I funds?
Or, are all funds simultaneously "liquidated" and the new shares are purchased to reflect the new allocation of 50% S and 50% I,and I loose the penny?
Finally, does it matter what process is used? :?
This is probably something that I should know, but I couldn't find anything on tsp.gov or this site.
I curious about how my IFT is processed. Suppose that I have a balance like 50% G, 25% S and 25% I. If I request and IFT changing the allocation to 50% S and 50% I, how does that happen?
To complicate the matter, If the G fund earns a penny on the day that my transaction is effective, do I earn the penny on my G fund, then the dollars from G are reallocated to the S and I funds?
Or, are all funds simultaneously "liquidated" and the new shares are purchased to reflect the new allocation of 50% S and 50% I,and I loose the penny?
Finally, does it matter what process is used? :?
This is probably something that I should know, but I couldn't find anything on tsp.gov or this site.