coolhand's Account Talk

For those of you who use those <1% IFTs, does it count as an IFT?

In other words, if I made a <1% move last week would that count as one of my two monthly IFTs?
 
CH, first time I did it about a year ago, It counted as an IFT. Now I only do it when I'm out of IFT's and I'm moving daily gains into the G.
 
Hopefully someone that does it on a continuous basis will fill you in.
As someone who does not play that (<1%), mind telling me what your thinking is?
 
Hopefully someone that does it on a continuous basis will fill you in.
As someone who does not play that (<1%), mind telling me what your thinking is?

I've been 100% S for about 3 weeks. At the previous low I pushed my contributions sitting in G into the S as well. It was <1%, but if it counts as an IFT then I've lost my flexibility for the month. I can't go back into G as I'll be locked into it till Aug 2nd.

I'm expecting another drop in the market. Perhaps soon. But it's a buying opportunity I think and won't last till August, so I'll have to ride any volatility out now. I do have another <1% move I can make into stocks though, but that's the extent of my ability to buy a dip.
 
I've been 100% S for about 3 weeks. At the previous low I pushed my contributions sitting in G into the S as well. It was <1%, but if it counts as an IFT then I've lost my flexibility for the month. I can't go back into G as I'll be locked into it till Aug 2nd.

I'm expecting another drop in the market. Perhaps soon. But it's a buying opportunity I think and won't last till August, so I'll have to ride any volatility out now. I do have another <1% move I can make into stocks though, but that's the extent of my ability to buy a dip.

CH,

The move counts....<1% is for after your major moves, and it really only works as a total everyday movement based on where you inject your contribution. You might want to read the <1% Thread, I can't find it right now.:suspicious:
 
CH,

The move counts....<1% is for after your major moves, and it really only works as a total everyday movement based on where you inject your contribution. You might want to read the <1% Thread, I can't find it right now.:suspicious:

CH, You can change your biweekly contribution alllocation to give you a small % in whichever fund you choose. This can open up the use of the <1% moves a little. You could even use the L funds. Sorry I know this isn't a lot of help. I know how you feel as I've already burned my IFTs for the month. Yesterday I moved back into the G fund where I'm pretty much stuck for the rest of July. I did leave small amounts in the C,S, and I funds (i.e. 97% G & 1% C,S, and I just in case I want to round up to use the <1% moves.
 
Thanks for the info folks.

Looks like I'm going to do another 1% move from G to S on this dip. That's the only thing my 2nd IFT is good for at this point. At least from my perspective. But if the market plays out like I think it's going to, it'll be just fine in the end.

Looking for some short term weakness, but I think the trend has turned back up for now.
 
I'm pretty sure it has to be a fractional percentage. full % values trigger an IFT.
I just did my first yesterday, then tried to do adjust my round # percentage values, and it kicked me as an IFT.
Tonite after the close, (tomorrow a.m. actually) I will adjust the resulting fractionals from today's market up or down to rebalance, that will IFT COB Friday.
Monday's #'s will be round, so my next 1% move would be Tues COB, after Monday's market creates fractional results I can reallocate to round percentages.
I suppose theoretically, moves of 15% could be made per month, since it appears you have to wait 1 day after your round # rebalance occurs to obtain your fractional gains/loss of the post IFT trading day, then IFT again.

For those of you who use those <1% IFTs, does it count as an IFT?

In other words, if I made a <1% move last week would that count as one of my two monthly IFTs?
 
I'm pretty sure it has to be a fractional percentage. full % values trigger an IFT.
I just did my first yesterday, then tried to do adjust my round # percentage values, and it kicked me as an IFT.
Tonite after the close, (tomorrow a.m. actually) I will adjust the resulting fractionals from today's market up or down to rebalance, that will IFT COB Friday.
Monday's #'s will be round, so my next 1% move would be Tues COB, after Monday's market creates fractional results I can reallocate to round percentages.
I suppose theoretically, moves of 15% could be made per month, since it appears you have to wait 1 day after your round # rebalance occurs to obtain your fractional gains/loss of the post IFT trading day, then IFT again.
ANY move made is considered an IFT, whether you re-distribute/reallocate/reproportion.

It is AFTER these two moves are made that the "<1% IFT method" is your sole mechanism for moving funds.......
 
I'm pretty sure it has to be a fractional percentage. full % values trigger an IFT.
I just did my first yesterday, then tried to do adjust my round # percentage values, and it kicked me as an IFT.
Tonite after the close, (tomorrow a.m. actually) I will adjust the resulting fractionals from today's market up or down to rebalance, that will IFT COB Friday.
Monday's #'s will be round, so my next 1% move would be Tues COB, after Monday's market creates fractional results I can reallocate to round percentages.
I suppose theoretically, moves of 15% could be made per month, since it appears you have to wait 1 day after your round # rebalance occurs to obtain your fractional gains/loss of the post IFT trading day, then IFT again.

After my two bullets are wasted. I have moved as much as just under 3% using the 3 funds C,S, I. The reason for that is if my funds have made a little money and they might be at 30.05% each for example. I can round each one up to the next percentage number up 31.00% and not be considered a IFT. Now I have increased each fund .95 * 3 funds or 2.85% transfer money to funds. That is sweet in my opinion. But, your IFT's need to be used up first before doing this in my opinion. It's not worth an allocated IFT to do this when you can move more money with your allocated IFT. Hope that makes sense.

Steve
 
yea- thanks, good point.
I was thinking that, but even tho the fingers have been in training for many years they still have difficulty with compliance.
Should've taken that foolish,-who-needs-to-know-how-to-type!? class in high school after all. :laugh:

ANY move made is considered an IFT, whether you re-distribute/reallocate/reproportion.

It is AFTER these two moves are made that the "<1% IFT method" is your sole mechanism for moving funds.......
 
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