Uptrend
Well-known member
ayla - I've considered your theory as well and found that most FV corrections generally adjust the I-fund to within 0.10% of the Barclay's index. That could account for some of the increase in the average post FV return, but I'm not convinced that such a small difference can account for the 10-15% increased probability of a positive return. I think much of it has to do with the short term effect of intra-day volatility on market psychology. I can certainly understand how that would be the case for a +/-FV. Post -/+FV's are a little more difficult to wrap my head around.
For the USM big rise in the afternoon causing a +/-FV sequence the, the third day rise may have to do with OSM traders digesting information that made the USM markets rapidly rise on day one. Perhaps it is a continuation reaction. USM tend to be the world market mover. Great observation, and I am looking at it. Not sure if this would be the case for USM digesting information for the -/+FV and moving to the S fund.