If the I fund was Fair Valued today for 1 "mystery" cent- on a day when there was neither stock price justificaiton, nor dollar value justification- then....what?
And we see evidence of January='s FV missing the last day of the month. And then February's FV missing it's target on the last day of the month.
Could it be that Barclays just took 1 cent from each I fund shareholder out there?
I see no data that it could have been based on value of stocks, nor on value of the dollar. The only possible thing would be to cover the higher costs now that fewer shares are trading hands.
Speculation: Barclays goal must be to end each month with near zero "trading costs" on the books.
In february, they did it and came up with a 1.9 MILLION dollar profit from interfund trades. But the same data also showed a 211 basis point tracking error.
And the NPRM stated the whole purpose of restricting trades was to reduce costs AND tracking error?
Except when they did reduced trading in February (number of trades cut in half to under 133,000), costs were slightly postive, but tracking error JUMPED instead of being reduced.
OK folks- all those invested in "I" today, large enough to make a 1 cent "clip", on one BILLION outstanding "I" fund shares (give or take a few), means that Barclays just "erased" $10 MILLION dollars from I fund holders today. Or was it only 1 million? It IS somewhere around 23 BILLION held in "I" fund right now. And each share is , tonight, worth $23.79
Did I do that math right? Is it one million? or ten million?
And when the data shows up in two months in the monthly meeting minutes, what do you think it will show that this month, trading costs were tiny, but "tracking error" was large?
Anyone?
(ANd note to GuilRL- FV stands for "Fair Value", or "Fair Valuation". )