How does that relate to the FV?
Say, one night the Nikkei and FTSE are down. The US markets gain 3% on some great news. You run to your computer and go 100% I-Fund and you know that you are fixing to make a bundle. Now Barclays is getting tons of orders to buy I-Fund shares but the foreign markets that trade those shares are closed. So Barclays has to predict what they can buy the EAFE shares for when the markets open up. Since the foreign markets generally follow the US markets, Barclays imposes a 3% FV.
It's starting to make sense, and can understand why a lot here are calculating what the FV would be on a certian day after trading.
Let me build a word problem and see if I'm close. I'll use this past Friday as an example (08/24/2007).
Nikkei was down slightly at close.
FTSE were basically flat.
US Market had a bit of positive bounce.
So the I fund should get a +FV (minus a possible 3% to zero value, or I guess could be said no FV) on Mondays close, +/- any FTSE gain/loss.
My hedge is, the FTSE will rally somewhat on Monday, a decent payday.
My other hedge is (using market forcast data of course) the US Market bounce will fall back harder than an anchor onto a pillow filled with Chinese chicken feathers Tuesday after the FTSE closes. Think they call that the dead cat bounce here
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