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I am missing somethingin regard to understanding where the growth of investments in the TSP comes from. My formula thus far as I understand it would be:
My contributions + Agency contributions =Investment dollars divided by price per share = shares owned. Shares owned X price per share=Account balance.
While I understand that the price per share fluctuates with the market depending on the fund, it seems that I am missing the compounding.
Does moving from one account to another miss out on the opportunity for compounding of returns? I saw where Tom was in the F fund and anticipated a .01 cent dividend however; I am uncertain how he knew the dividend was coming or who would get it? Would everyone in the fund be entitled regardless of whether they were in the fund all month or just one day?
Does one bad year wipe out the compounding of returns put together over several years when no additional money is contributed to take advantage of the reduced cost of shares? That is, if you ride out the storm and never move to a safe haven like the G fund when the market is on a downhill slope will your account erode until the market returns to where it was when you last contributed? If so, at that point would you have exactly what you had before the share prices dropped or will you have accumulated additional shares (despite having not invested any "new" money) and actually be better off when the market recovers?
I'm just trying to understand. Go ahead and pummel me!
I am missing somethingin regard to understanding where the growth of investments in the TSP comes from. My formula thus far as I understand it would be:
My contributions + Agency contributions =Investment dollars divided by price per share = shares owned. Shares owned X price per share=Account balance.
While I understand that the price per share fluctuates with the market depending on the fund, it seems that I am missing the compounding.
Does moving from one account to another miss out on the opportunity for compounding of returns? I saw where Tom was in the F fund and anticipated a .01 cent dividend however; I am uncertain how he knew the dividend was coming or who would get it? Would everyone in the fund be entitled regardless of whether they were in the fund all month or just one day?
Does one bad year wipe out the compounding of returns put together over several years when no additional money is contributed to take advantage of the reduced cost of shares? That is, if you ride out the storm and never move to a safe haven like the G fund when the market is on a downhill slope will your account erode until the market returns to where it was when you last contributed? If so, at that point would you have exactly what you had before the share prices dropped or will you have accumulated additional shares (despite having not invested any "new" money) and actually be better off when the market recovers?
I'm just trying to understand. Go ahead and pummel me!