Lostdawg
Investor
- Reaction score
- 4
I'm just getting into TSP, so I haven't lost anything yet. Accept time, but we won't go there.
Everyone I talk to says you want to accumulate shares and that is the most important thing. I understand that idea. The more shares you have, the more you earn for each increase per share. But one guy keeps arguing with me that I don't understand. Telling me I should be moving my money out of G fund and buy C and S. If I don't feel the bottom has been reached why in the world would I want to buy funds that I think are still going down? I understand you want to ideally get them on the bottom, but that is not part of the problem I'm arguing with him about.
hypothetical example:
I have 10 shares of "C fund" worth $10 each ($100). I move 100% over to "I fund" that cost $20 a share. I now have 5 shares of "I fund". The dollar value that moved out of "C fund" and into "I fund" is still the same amount (in this example $100). While I now have fewer shares, the value is the same at the onset and completion of the transaction, right?
If the "C fund" was going down for awhile and bottomed at $5 a share. At the same time the "I fund" rose to $30 a share. I then move 100% of "I fund" (now $150) back into "C fund" and purchase 30 shares of "C fund".
Just trying to make sure I have not flawed what seems very basic to me.
Thanks for any help to clear this fog.
Everyone I talk to says you want to accumulate shares and that is the most important thing. I understand that idea. The more shares you have, the more you earn for each increase per share. But one guy keeps arguing with me that I don't understand. Telling me I should be moving my money out of G fund and buy C and S. If I don't feel the bottom has been reached why in the world would I want to buy funds that I think are still going down? I understand you want to ideally get them on the bottom, but that is not part of the problem I'm arguing with him about.
hypothetical example:
I have 10 shares of "C fund" worth $10 each ($100). I move 100% over to "I fund" that cost $20 a share. I now have 5 shares of "I fund". The dollar value that moved out of "C fund" and into "I fund" is still the same amount (in this example $100). While I now have fewer shares, the value is the same at the onset and completion of the transaction, right?
If the "C fund" was going down for awhile and bottomed at $5 a share. At the same time the "I fund" rose to $30 a share. I then move 100% of "I fund" (now $150) back into "C fund" and purchase 30 shares of "C fund".
Just trying to make sure I have not flawed what seems very basic to me.
Thanks for any help to clear this fog.