PessOptimist
Well-known member
Trying to get down to the nuts and bolts of this thing. Too many tangents and what ifs when you look it up.
I will do the disclaimer. This is not legal tax advice and no one replying is a legal tax expert (some may be) and no replies will be considered legal advice no matter what may or may not happen now or in the future.
A member of the household inherited some land. More than ten years ago. I think the FMV for the date the deed was changed has been determined. That ought to cover some of the questions.
The person who now owns the land is thinking about selling. Several friends advised that there are no tax problems as inheritance is not taxed. I believe that selling the land will create a capital gain based on the FMV when deeded to the person (basis) v the selling price. In other words if the FMV was $30 when acquired and the selling price is $80 then capital gain is $50. This argument goes on when discussed. I believe the friends would have been correct if the successor had sold the land at about the time they acquired it.
The actual question is this:
If the land is sold and a profit from the basis is $200k and the other AGI for that year is $60k, does the $200k kick the AGI to $269k and a tax rate of 33%? Normally the tax on that amount would be about 13.5%. Will the $60k be taxed at 33%?
I believe I am correct about the gain based on the FMV. I think the owner may be somewhat pissed when the IRS takes15-20% plus maybe an additional 3.8% for ACA.
TIA, PO
I will do the disclaimer. This is not legal tax advice and no one replying is a legal tax expert (some may be) and no replies will be considered legal advice no matter what may or may not happen now or in the future.
A member of the household inherited some land. More than ten years ago. I think the FMV for the date the deed was changed has been determined. That ought to cover some of the questions.
The person who now owns the land is thinking about selling. Several friends advised that there are no tax problems as inheritance is not taxed. I believe that selling the land will create a capital gain based on the FMV when deeded to the person (basis) v the selling price. In other words if the FMV was $30 when acquired and the selling price is $80 then capital gain is $50. This argument goes on when discussed. I believe the friends would have been correct if the successor had sold the land at about the time they acquired it.
The actual question is this:
If the land is sold and a profit from the basis is $200k and the other AGI for that year is $60k, does the $200k kick the AGI to $269k and a tax rate of 33%? Normally the tax on that amount would be about 13.5%. Will the $60k be taxed at 33%?
I believe I am correct about the gain based on the FMV. I think the owner may be somewhat pissed when the IRS takes15-20% plus maybe an additional 3.8% for ACA.
TIA, PO